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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-242
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Developer II: App Engine and Integration)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 An Application Engine program inserts rows into PS_VENDOR.
The program encounters an error and abends (ends abnormally).
You correct the error, but now PS_VENDOR is in an unknown state.
Select the correct statement.
A. If Log File was enabled in Configuration Manager, a script file was created that you use to return the
database to its original state. After you correct the error, you can run the program again.
B. If Recover was enabled for the program, the changes to PS_VENDOR are rolled back. After you
correct the error, you can run the program again.
C. If Restart was enabled for the program, a checkpoint was saved with the last commit. After you correct
the error, you can restart the program and processing will resume from the point of the last commit.
D. If Resume was enabled in PeopleSoft Process Scheduler, the program automatically resumes
processing after the condition that caused the error is corrected.
E. If a state record was defined for the program, PS_VENDOR is restored based on parameters that were
written to the state record. Then you can restart the program using the same run control parameters.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Here is a snippet of PeopleCode that uses the Fetch method of the SQL class.
&SQL = CreateSQL("Select EFFORT_AMT from PS_PSU_TASK_EFFORT where TASK= :1",
PSU_TASK_TBL.TASK);
&Var1 = &SQL.Fetch(&Var2);
Select the two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A. &Var2 specifies which row to fetch.
B. &Var2 specifies which field to fetch.
C. &Var1 is populated with TRUE if a row is fetched.
D. &Var1 is populated with the number of rows returned.
E. &Var2 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
F. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
G. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the first row returned.
Answer: CE

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NO.3 You want to examine the component buffer for the Customer Orders (PSU_CUST_ORDER )
component. Which four steps are necessary? (Choose four.)
A. Start the PeopleCode Debugger and set a breakpoint.
B. Access the Structure view on the PSU_CUST_ORDER component.
C. In Application Designer, select Component Buffers.
D. Access the Customer Orders component in the browser and trigger the breakpoint. Return to
PeopleSoft Application Designer when the breakpoint triggers.
E. Open, or create, a PeopleCode program that will execute while Customer Orders is running in the
browser.
F. Drill down through the component hierarchy in the Structure view on the PSU_CUST_ORDER
component.
G. In Application Designer, select Debug, View Component Buffers.
Answer: ADEG

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NO.4 You add a dynamic call to an Application Engine program following these steps:
1. Add the fields AE_APPLID and AE_SECTION to the state record if they are not already present.
2. Build the state record.
3. Verify that the state record is the default state record for the Application Engine program.
4. In a PeopleCode action, use a conditional test to populate the fields AE_APPLID and AE_SECTION
with an Application Engine program name and section name, respectively.
5. Following the PeopleCode action, add a Call Section action.
Select the correct statement.
A. The Application Engine program will execute as expected.
B. Step 2 is not needed for dynamic call.
C. Step 3 is not needed.
D. Add a step after step 5 to insert a SQL action that will use the values in the state record to populate the
Program and Section fields of the Application Engine Call Section action.
E. Add a step after step 5 to select the Dynamic Call check box in the Call Section action.
F. Step 4 is wrong. The PeopleCode program should use the AESection class to issue the dynamic call.
Answer: E

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NO.5 You want to see exactly when a PeopleCode program fires in the context of the Component Processor
flow. Which two methods will work? (Choose two.)
A. Insert a Print() statement in the program.
B. Insert a WinMessage() statement in the program.
C. Insert a MessageCatalog() statement in the program.
D. Run the PeopleCode Debugger and insert a breakpoint on the program.
E. Run the PeopleCode Debugger and select Debug, View Component Buffers.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 View the Exhibit.
This run control page executes an Application Engine program that updates the Course table using the
parameters entered by a user.
In addition to the run control page, which three elements must be in place? (Choose three.)
A. A state record with fields to hold input parameters
B. Component variables to pass the input parameters
C. A data buffer object to retrieve the input parameters
D. Application Engine SQL to retrieve the input parameters
E. A PeopleCode record object to update the Course table
F. A Process Instance table to store run control parameters
G. A run control record with fields to store the input parameters
Answer: ADG

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NO.7 How do you configure Process Scheduler to initiate an Application Engine trace for SQL and Step?
A. Add %%TRACE%% %%SQL%% %%STEP%% to the parameter list for the Process Type.
B. On the Run Control page, select the SQL Trace and Step Trace check boxes.
C. On the Process Monitor page, select the SQL Trace and Step Trace check boxes.
D. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter
-TRACE 3.
E. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter -TRACE
SQL STEP.
F. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and
enter %%TRACE%% %%SQL%% %%STEP%%.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Get Student Enrollments page uses a PeopleCode program to select and display rows based on
user input. When the user clicks Refresh, FieldChange PeopleCode populates a stand-alone rowset
using a Select method. When you test the program, the new rows are appended to the previous rows
instead of replacing them. How do you fix this problem?
A. Use a work scroll instead of a stand-alone rowset.
B. Add &Rowset.Flush(); after the Select method.
C. Use an Update method instead of a Select method.
D. Add &Rowset.Flush(); before the Select method.
E. Add &Rowset.Refresh (); after the Select method.
F. Add &Rowset.Refresh(); before the Select method.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Evaluate this PeopleCode snippet.
Local Array of Number &MyArray;
Local Any &Len, &Result;
&MyArray = CreateArray(3);
&MyArray[1] = 100;
&MyArray[2] = 200;
&MyArray[3] = 300;
&Result = &MyArray.POP();
&Len = &MyArray.LEN;
&End = &MyArray[&Len];
What are the correct values for &Result and &End?
A. &Result is 300
&End is 200
B. &Result is 300
&End is Null
C. &Result is 300
&End is 300
D. &Result is Null
&End is 300
E. &Result is 100
&End is 300
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Process Scheduler process is configured to run an Application Engine program. You need to modify
the process to use parameters entered by the user at run time. Which four additional steps do you need to
take? (Choose four.)
A. Create a process type for the new process.
B. Add bind variables to the command-line parameters.
C. Write a PeopleCode program to pass the parameters.
D. Create a state record with fields to pass input parameters.
E. Create a run control page with fields to enter the input parameters.
F. Create a run control record with fields to store the input parameters.
G. Modify the Application Engine program to retrieve the input parameters.
Answer: DEFG

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NO.11 Examine the join in this Select statement:
SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE A.TASK = B.TASK
AND A.RESOURCE = B.RESOURCE
Select the equivalent Select statement.
A. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Join(A.TASK, B.RESOURCE)
B. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Common(PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
C. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM %Common(KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
D. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Join(COMMON_KEYS, TASK A, EFFORT_AMT B)
E. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM %Join(COMMON_KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
Answer: E

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NO.12 View the Exhibit.
An object-oriented PeopleCode program traverses the data buffer to get the value for Session Number
(SESSION_NBR) in the Session Details record (PSU_CRS_SESSN) on the Course Sessions page.
The program uses a built-in function to instantiate the Level 0 object, then uses object methods to
instantiate the remaining data buffer objects.
Select the option that represents the order in which the program instantiates the data buffer objects.
A. &Row_Level0, &Row _Level1, &Record, &Field
B. &Rowset_Level0, &Row_Level1, &Record, &Field
C. &Rowset_Level0, &Rowset_Level1, &Row_Level1, &Record, &Field
D. &Rowset_Level0, &Row _Level0, &Rowset_Level1, &Row _Level1, &Record, &Field
Answer: D

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NO.13 The Customer Orders page uses data from the ITEM table to perform price calculations. You decide to
write a PeopleCode program to create a stand-alone rowset that will load data from the ITEM table into
the data buffer. Select three PeopleCode statements that can be used with stand-alone rowsets. (Choose
three.)
A. &RS_Item = GetRowSet(SCROLL.ITEM);
B. &RS_Item = CreateRowSet(RECORD.ITEM);
C. &Price = &RS_Item(&i).ITEM.PRICE.Value;
D. &RS_Item.Select("Where ITEM = :1", CUST_ORDER.ITEM);
E. &RS_Item.Fill("Where CUST_TYPE = :1", CUST_ORDER.TYPE);
F. &RS_Item = ScrollSelect(1,Scroll.ITEM, Record.ITEM, ("Where CUST_TYPE = :1", CUST_ORDER.
CUST_TYPE);
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 Select three Application Engine action types that can be used to control program flow. (Choose three.)
A. Log Message
B. Call Section
C. XSLT
D. PeopleCode
E. Do While
F. Evaluate
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 You modify an Application Engine program to use parallel processing with temporary tables.
The Application Engine program includes this code snippet, which is part of a SQL statement that inserts
rows into a temporary table.
INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP
What changes do you need to make to the code so that the Application Engine program will implement
parallel processing properly?
A. No changes to the code are needed as long as the temporary table has been properly configured for
parallel processing.
B. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP so that the
meta-SQL resolves to the correct state record at run time.
C. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO %Table(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that
the system variables resolve to the correct syntax at run time.
D. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with INSERT INTO %Table(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that
the meta-SQL resolves to the correct temporary table instance at run time.
E. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO %Temp(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that
the meta-SQL resolves to the correct syntax and temporary table instance at run time.
Answer: D

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NO.16 An Application Engine program requires a loop that will exit after 1000 rows have been processed.
The COUNTER field in the state record is incremented in each iteration of the loop. Which option contains
code that could be used in a Do While action to test for COUNTER?
A. Do While %Bind(Counter) < 1000
B. %SELECT (COUNTER)
FROM PS_INSTALLATION
Where COUNTER < 1000
C. If %Bind(Counter) >= 1000 then
Exit;
D. %Select(COUNTER)
FROM PS_STATE_AET
Where COUNTER < 1000
E. %Select(COUNTER)
SELECT 'X'
FROM PS_INSTALLATION
WHERE %Bind(COUNTER) < 1000;
Answer: E

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NO.17 View the Exhibit.
On the Employee Review page, you have a business rule with these requirements:
1. If Review Type is Supervisor, then the prompt for Reviewer ID returns only supervisors.
2. If Review Type is Peer or Performance, then the prompt for Reviewer ID returns all employees.
Select the three steps required to implement this business rule. (Choose three.)
A. Associate the REVIEWER_ID field with REVIEWER_VW.
B. Create REVIEWER_VW as a dynamic view of the EMPLOYEE table.
C. Add the DERIVED.EDITTABLE field to the page and make it invisible.
D. Set the prompt table edit for the REVIEWER_ID field to REVIEWER_VW.
E. Set the prompt table edit for the REVIEWER_ID field to DERIVED.%EDITTABLE.
F. Use a SQL Select statement in PeopleCode to populate the REVIEWER_VW view.
G. Use a conditional statement in PeopleCode to populate the DERIVED.EDITTABLE field.
Answer: CEG

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NO.18 An Application Engine program uses a Do Select action. What occurs when the Select statement is
executed?
A. Each row returned by the Select statement is stored in the state record. The Select statement
continues until no more rows are returned. Then, the control passes to the calling section.
B. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in a cursor. Then, the control is passed to the
calling section.
C. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in the state record. Then, the control is passed to
the next section in the program.
D. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in a cursor. The first row is stored in the state
record. Then, the remaining actions in the step are processed sequentially. Thereafter, the control returns
to the Do Select to fetch another row, until no more rows are returned.
E. When a row is returned, the remaining steps in the section execute and control returns to the calling
step.
F. When a row is returned, it is stored in the state record. Then, the control is passed to the calling section.
Answer: D

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NO.19 View the Exhibit.
Your client is upgrading its purchasing application to use object-oriented PeopleCode to incorporate the
benefits of application classes.
The PeopleCode for the Purchase Order application is now encapsulated in an Application Package
called PSU_PO. The assign_order_nbr function is now ORDER_NBR, a method of the ORDER class.
You are tasked with modifying this program to call the new ORDER_NBR method.
Which four PeopleCode statements will you use in the new program? (Choose four.)
A. Class PSU_PO:ORDER;
B. &New.ORDER_NBR(PSU_PO_HDR.ORDER_NBR);
C. Import PSU_PO:ORDER;
D. Declare method PSU_PO:ORDER:ORDER_NBR;
E. &New = Create Order();
F. Local ORDER &New;
G. Method ORDER_NBR (&ORDER_NBR As Field out);
Answer: BCEF

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NO.20 View the Exhibit.
A PeopleCode program at level 0 checks the values for Percent Available (PCT_AVAILABLE) at level 1.
Analyze this code snippet.
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_TaskRsrc;
Local Field & Fld_PctAvail ;
&RS_Level0 = GetLevel0();
&Row_Level0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_Level1 = &Row_Level0.GetRowset(Scroll.PSU_TASK_RSRC);
&Row_Level1 = &RS_Level1.GetRow(1);
&Rec_TaskRsrc = &Row_Level1.GetRecord(Record.PSU_Task_RSRC);
&Fld_PctAvail = &Rec_TaskRsrc.GetField(Field.PCT_AVAILABLE);
&Pct = &Fld_PctAvail.Value;
Select the correct option.
A. The program will produce the expected results.
B. The program is missing a loop to process each row in the level 1 rowset.
C. The program is missing a loop to process each rowset in the level 1 row.
D. The program can be simplified to:
&Pct = &RS_Level0.PSU_Task_RSRC.PCT_AVAILABLE.Value;
E. This line of code is not needed:
&RS_Level1 = &Row_Level0.GetRowset(Scroll.PSU_TASK_RSRC);
F. The &RS_Level0 = GetLevel0(); function is missing the Level 0 scroll name.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-024
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Performance Tuning)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the least number of buffers an LRU latch must cover in the database buffer cache?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 30
D. 50
E. 100
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements about plan stability and stored outlines are true? (Choose two)
A. You can group outlines in categories.
B. You can only have one stored outline per SQL statement.
C. Plan stability works only when SQL statements match.
D. Stored outlines are saved in the data dictionary (SYS schema)
E. Stored outlines become invalid when you analyze the associated objects.
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 Which three types of statistics are reported in report.txt after running UTLESTAT SQL?
(Choose three)
A. Locking statistics.
B. Memory usage statistics.
C. Explain plan statistics.
D. Library cache statistics.
E. Buffer busy wait statistics.
F. Rollback contention statistics.
Answer: D, E, F

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NO.4 Which type of transaction should you assign to a specific large rollback segment?
A. Batch jobs that modify many rows.
B. Long running serializable transactions.
C. Long running reports, to avoid 'snapshot too old' errors.
D. Discrete transactions that modify many rows in the same block.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two views can be sued to detect lock contention? (Choose two)
A. V$LOCK
B. V$LOCKED_OBJECT
C. V$LOCK_CONTENTION
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 In which two ways can you reduce the amount of sorting that is performed? (Choose two)
A. By using UNIONinstead of UNION ALL.
B. By using NOSORT when creating tables.
C. By using NOSORT when creating indexes.
D. By using COMPUTE instead of ESTIMATE when analysing objects.
E. By reducing the number of users that have the sort privilege.
F. By creating appropriate indexes on tables that are joined often.
Answer: C, F

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NO.7 If a willing-to-wait latch request is satisfied on the first attempt, which statistic gets
incremented?
A. GETS
B. SLEEPS
C. MISSES
D. IMMEDIATE_GETS
E. IMMEDIATE_ MISSES
F. IMMEDIATE_GETS
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which tablespace is used as the temporary tablespace if 'TEMPORARY TABLESPACE' is
not specified for a user?
A. TEMP
B. DATA
C. SYSTEM
D. ROLL-BACK
Answer: C

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NO.9 What will this statement do?
CREATE TABLESPACE temp
DATAFILE 'C:\database\temp.dbf' SIZE 10n
Temporary;
A. Create a tablespace that will be dropped on instance shutdown.
B. Create a tablespace in which the user can create segments for usage during sorts.
C. Create a tablespace in which oracle can create segments for usage during sorts.
D. Create a tablespace in which a user can create tables that will be automatically dropped after a
week
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which dynamic view is most useful for determining the current number of blocks allocated
to a buffer pool?
A. V$CACHE
B. V$SESS_IO
C. V$SYSSTAT
D. V$BUFFER_POOL
Answer: D

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NO.11 When a deadlock shutdown is detected by Oracle, where is the trace file generated?
A. SQL_TRACE
B. TRACE_DEST
C. USER_DUMP_DEST
D. CORE_DUMP_DEST
E. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three statements about improving the performance of the database buffer cache by
creating multiple buffer pools are true? (Choose three)
A. One, two, or three pools may be defined.
B. There are at least 50 blocks per LRU latch for
each pool.
C. Each buffer pool is assigned latches taken from DB_BLOCK_LRU_LATCHES.
D. The size of the DEFAULT pool is obtained by adding all the pools to the value of the
DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS parameter.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.13 Which three statements about rebuilding indexes are true? (Choose three)
A. The ALTER INDEX REBUILD command is used to change the storage characteristics of an
index.
B. Using the ALTER INDEX REBUILD is usually faster than dropping and recreating an index
because it uses the fast full scan feature.
C. Oracle8i allows for the creation of an index or re-creation of an existing index while allowing
concurrent operations on the base table.
D. When building an index, the NOLOGGING and UNRECOVERABLE keywords can be used
concurrently to reduce the time it takes to rebuild.
Answer: A, B, C

Oracle   1Z0-024 examen   certification 1Z0-024   certification 1Z0-024

NO.14 Which action could potentially cause checkpoints to take longer?
A. Increasing the number of redo log groups.
B. Increasing the size of rollback segments.
C. Decreasing the value of the REDO_LOG_BUFFERS parameter.
D. Increasing the value of the FATS_START_IO_TARGET parameter.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-024   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.15 For which reason would you query V$SYSSTAT?
A. Name of the sort segment.
B. Free space available for a sort segment.
C. Number of disk sorts performed since startup.
D. Number of users active on individual sort segments.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-024 examen   certification 1Z0-024   certification 1Z0-024

NO.16 What does this statement do?
SQL>ANALYZE INDEX index_name VALIDITY STRUCTURE;
A. It places information into the INDEX_STATS view and allows for the monitoring of space
used by an index.
B. It provides information in the INDEX_HISTOGRAM view to indicate whether an index is
invalid or valid.
C. It provides information in the DBA_INDEXES view for the COST BASED Optimizer when
choosing an execution plan.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024 examen   1Z0-024

NO.17 What are two main OLTP requirements? (Choose two)
A. Use bind variables rather than literals in your SQL code.
B. Analyze your tables regularly to refresh optimizer statistics.
C. Create multiple small rollback segments as opposed to a few big ones.
D. Create indexes on all columns that are regularly used in query predicates.
E. Set up appropriate default storage parameter values for dynamic (implicit) space allocation.
Answer: B, C,

Oracle   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.18 When performing a sort operation, you notice that there are a large number of sorts
requiring I/O to the disk. Which parameter could be increased to allow more sorts to be
performed in memory?
A. SORT_AREA_SIZE
B. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
C. SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE
D. SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.19 Which statement could require a sort?
A. SELECT DISTINCT dept_ID FROM emp;
B. UPDATE emp SET salary=salary*1.1 WHERE id 7722;
C. SELECT emp_id, nameFROM emp WHERE emp-id = 7722;
D. SELECT emp_id, nameFROM emp WHERE emp-id = BETWEEN 7722 and 7100 ;
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-024 examen   1Z0-024 examen   certification 1Z0-024

NO.20 The database includes tables with static data, which are used for queries only. To which
size should you set PCTFREE for this type of table?
A. 0
B. 50
C. 20
D. 10
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024 examen   1Z0-024 examen   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-041
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: DBA Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Which default administrative user account does the Management Agent component of
Oracle Enterprise Manager use to monitor and manage the database?
A. OE
B. SYS
C. OUTLN
D. DBSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041 examen

NO.2 Which method can you use to receive a notification when the free disk space in
the recovery area falls below 10%?
A. Submit a job that queries the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).
B. Create an alert that sends a notification when the threshold value is reached.
C. Invoke the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to configure notifications and set
threshold values.
D. Specify the users who should receive notifications in the Preferred Credentials of the
Enterprise Manager.
E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to analyze disk space
and display a warning message.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041 examen

NO.3 Exhibit:
View the Exhibit.
You are creating an additional database by using Database Configuration Assistant
(DBCA). You realize that the Block Size field is not enabled. What could be the reason?
A. You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
B. You are not using the Custom Database template to create the database.
C. You have not chosen the Use Grid Control for Database Management option.
D. The data block size is set to the maximum block size supported by the operating system.
E. The data block size can be increased only when DBCA is invoked from Oracle
Universal Installer (OUI).
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041

NO.4 Which three default actions are performed by Enterprise Manager when a tablespace is
deleted? (Choose three.)
A. All the objects in the tablespace are truncated.
B. All the objects stored in the tablespace are dropped.
C. The definitions of the objects are removed from the data dictionary.
D. The definitions of the objects are retained in the data dictionary but made invalid.
E. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are deleted from the operating system.
F. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are not physically removed from the
operating system.
Answer: B, C, E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041 examen

NO.5 To protect the sample schema accounts from an unauthorized user access,
these accounts are _____.
A. not granted any role initially
B. operating system (OS) authenticated
C. initially locked with their passwords expired
D. created with their passwords stored in a password file
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-041 examen   1Z0-041   1Z0-041

NO.6 Exhibit:
View the Exhibit and examine the Net Services Administration page of Enterprise Manager.
Which menu option would you choose to manage the contents of the tnsnames.ora file?
A: Listeners
B: Directory Naming
C: Local Naming
D: File Location
Answer: C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-041   1Z0-041

NO.7 Which three statements are true about database storage structures? (Choose
three.)
A. Tablespaces comprise one or more datafiles.
B. Segments can span datafiles within a tablespace.
C. Datafiles can belong to more than one tablespace.
D. Segments can span datafiles across tablespaces.
E. Data objects are stored as segments in tablespaces.
Answer: A, B, E

Oracle examen   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041 examen   1Z0-041   certification 1Z0-041

NO.8 Which three statements are correct regarding the Database Configuration Assistant
(DBCA) templates? (Choose three.)
A. Templates are XML files.
B. Seed templates are stored with the .dbt extension.
C. Templates cannot be copied from one machine to another.
D. Creation of the database is faster when you use a nonseed template instead of a seed
template.
E. Templates are stored in the $ORACLE_HOME/assistants/dbca/templates directory on a
Linux platform.
F. If you use a nonseed template to create the database, then all the datafiles and redo logs
are created as per your specification.
Answer: A, E, F

Oracle examen   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   certification 1Z0-041   1Z0-041

NO.9 Which three usernames, by default, provide access to Oracle Enterprise
Manager Database Control? (Choose three.)
A. SYS
B. MDSYS
C. WKSYS
D. DMSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: A, E, F

Oracle   1Z0-041 examen   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041 examen

NO.10 Which two statements are correct regarding naming methods? (Choose two.)
A. Easy connect naming method requires no configuration.
B. Directory naming method stores net service names in a local configuration file.
C. Local naming method stores net service names in a supported non-Oracle service.
D. Directory naming method stores connect identifiers in a centralized, LDAP-compliant
directory server.
E. External naming method stores connect descriptors, identified by their net service names
in the sqlnet.ora file.
Answer: A, D

Oracle   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041   1Z0-041

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-144
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Program with PL/SQL)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Users with definer's rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be granted
access to the table itself.
B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server avoids the
parsing overhead of SQL statements at run time.
C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for
execution by multiple users to speed up performance.
D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or function that
is written in a different programming language, such as C or Java.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   1Z0-144   certification 1Z0-144   1Z0-144 examen

NO.2 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the customer table.
Examine the following trigger code:
What is the outcome when the above trigger is compiled?
A. It compiles successfully.
B. It gives an error because the when condition is not valid.
C. It gives an error because when cannot be used for row-level triggers.
D. It gives an error because the statements under updating are not valid.
E. It gives an error because the new qualifier in the when clause requires a colon prefix.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-144   1Z0-144   certification 1Z0-144

NO.3 View Exhibit1 and examine the structure of the employees table.
View Exhibit2 and examine the code.
What would be the outcome when the code is executed?
A. It executes successfully.
B. It gives an error because the SAL variable is not visible in the increase function.
C. It gives an error because the increase function cannot be called from the RAISE_SALARY procedure.
D. It gives an error because the increase function and the RAISE_SALARY procedure should be declared
at the beginning of the declare section before all the other declarations.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-144   1Z0-144 examen

NO.4 View the exhibit and examine the structure of the products table.
Examine the following code
Which statement is true when the procedure DELETE_DETAILS is invoked?
A. It executes successfully but no error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table
B. It executes successfully and any error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table.
C. It gives an error because PRAGMA AUTONOMOUSJTRANSACTION can be used only in packaged
procedures.
D. It gives an error because procedures containing PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION cannot
be called from the exception section.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-144 examen   certification 1Z0-144   1Z0-144 examen   1Z0-144

NO.5 Examine the following block of code: Which line in the above code would result in errors upon
execution?
A. line 5
B. line 8
C. line 2
D. line 7
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-144   certification 1Z0-144   1Z0-144 examen

NO.6 The STRING_TAB table has the following structure:
View the Exhibit and examine the code.
What is the outcome on execution?
A. It displays
Out put buffer not long enough.
This is my test string.-.
B. It displays only
Output buffer not long enough, and exits the anonymous block.
C. It displays only
This is my test string. - Because EXCEPTION should have been defined in the anonymous block
to get the error message.
D. It does not display any of the MEMS_PUTPUT messages and gives an error because a
transaction control statement cannot be used in the exception section of a procedure.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-144   1Z0-144   1Z0-144

NO.7 Examine the following command:
SQL>ALTER SESSION
SET plsql_warnings *
'enable:severe',
'enable:performance',
'ERROR:05003';
What is the implication of the above command?
A. It issues a warning whenever ERROR: 05003 occur during compilation.
B. It causes the compilation to fail whenever the warning ERROR.05003 occurs.
C. It issues warnings whenever the code causes an unexpected action or wrong results performance
problems.
D. It causes the compilation to fail whenever the code gives wrong results or contains statements that are
never executed.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-144   1Z0-144 examen

NO.8 View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code:
SREVROUPUT is on for the session. Which statement Is true about the output of the PL/SQL block?
A. The output is x = y.
B. It produces an error.
C. The output Is x != y.
D. The output Is Can't tell if x and y are equal or not.
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-144 examen   1Z0-144

NO.9 Which two tasks should be created as functions instead of as procedures? (Choose two.)
A. reference host or bind variables in a PL7SQL block of code
B. tasks that compute and return multiple values to the calling environment
C. tasks that compute a value that must be returned to the calling environment
D. tasks performed in SQL that increase data independence by processing complex data analysis within
the Oracle server, rather than by retrieving the data into an application
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-144   certification 1Z0-144

NO.10 What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?
A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is
consistent within a user session.
B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.
C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.
D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current
active sessions.
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-144   1Z0-144 examen   1Z0-144   certification 1Z0-144

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-523
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Application Grid Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three data source integrations are provided by Coherence out of the box?
A. TopLink Grid and TopLink Essentials
B. Java Persistence API (JPA)
C. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)
D. File System
E. Java Database Connectivity (JDBC)
Answer: A,B,E

certification Oracle   1Z0-523 examen   certification 1Z0-523

NO.2 Which three of the following are considered Fixed Asset Depreciation Rule Components?
A. International Depreciation Methods
B. Header
C. Annual Rules
D. Rule Conventions
E. Predefined Depreciation Methods
Answer: B,C,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-523   certification 1Z0-523   1Z0-523 examen

NO.3 Node Manager is a WebLogic Server ______ that enables you to start, shut down, and restart
Administration Server and Managed Server instances from a remote location.
A. Instance
B. Utility
C. Destination
D. Ouster
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-523   1Z0-523   1Z0-523

NO.4 In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-523   1Z0-523 examen   1Z0-523 examen

NO.5 As a best practice, what would you change in the following command line to create successful domain
template "My WebLogic Domain"?
Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain
-template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
A. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user__projects\domains\mydomain.dll
template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
B. Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar
template=C:\oracle\userJ:emplates\mydomain -template_name=nMy WebLogic Domain"
C. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain
template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydornain.jar -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
D.Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar
template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-523   1Z0-523 examen   1Z0-523 examen

NO.6 A. Oracle WebLogic Server
B. Oracle Coherence
C. Oracle Database
D. Oracle Real Time Operations Control
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-523   1Z0-523 examen

NO.7 In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-523 examen   1Z0-523   1Z0-523

NO.8 Which two statements are true about the Application Grid?
A. Application Grid computing brings key industry-leading technologies like MS IIS and Grade WebLogic
Server together.
B. Application Grid computing promotes well architected sharing of resources.
C. Application Grid computing is based on Oracle's RAC technology.
D. Application Grid computing results in more predictable behavior through better Instrumentation and
more optimal allocation of resources.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   1Z0-523 examen   1Z0-523

NO.9 Which interface provides the ability to see changes in real-time as they occur?
A. ConcunentMap
B. java. util. AbstractMap
C. ObservableMap
D. InvocableMap
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-523   1Z0-523

NO.10 Coherence provides the ideal infrastructure for building _____ services, and the ______ applications.
A. Data Grid, Client and Server based
B. Ouster, Client and Server based
C. Data Grid, DNS based
D. Cloud cluster, Client and Server based
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-523   1Z0-523   1Z0-523

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-542
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Content Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about Oracle Universal Records Management?
A. It can manage physical records only.
B. It can manage electronic records only.
C. It can manage both electronic and physical records.
D. It can manage both records and non-records.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Content Server, which system service provides the ability to obtain information about the storage
volumes that are available for document storage?
A. PreferenceService
B. TicketService
C. DocumentService
D. LifecycleService
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the common feature of Oracle Document Capture and Oracle Distributed Document. Capture
that help leverage corporate data to dynamically index documents.?
A. Audit Table
B. Separator Sheet
C. Database Lookup
D. Data Link
Answer: C

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NO.4 An XML file that stores all information about a Site Studio Web site on the content server is known as
the__________.
A. Configuration File
B. Project File
C. Date File
D. Template File
Answer: B

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NO.5 Oracle Site Studio's contributor editor window has one or more form fields, one for each____ in the data
file associated with the current contribution region on the Web page.
A. Fragment
B. Element
C. Placeholder
D. Region
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the role based security model in Oracle Content Server?
A. Only the system administrator user can assign a role to each user.
B. Only the system administrater role can assign more than one role to a user.
C. Both the system administrator and subadministrator users can assign one or more roles to auser.
D Only the subadministrator role can assign more than one role to a user.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which revision status indicates that the revision is being converted to Web-viewable format?
A. RELEASED
B. REVIEW
C. GenWWW
D. EXPIRED
Answer: C

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NO.8 ______and _____are prerequisites needed to install Oracle Digital Asset Management?
A. Connection Server
B. Content Server
C. Inbound Refinery
D. Hip Factory
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Select the mode in which Oracle's Site Studio Manager can be displayed.
A. Contribution
B. Assistance
C. Normal
D. Basic
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two objects are part of Oracle Universal Records Management file plan hierarchy?
A. Record Method
B. Record Category
C. Record Function
D. Record Folder
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: A2040-951
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 Barb is the lead developer for the Sales application and the Travel application. Each
application
consists of multiple databases. Within the application navigator, Barb would like to be able to
list the
databases of the Sales application together, and then, separate from the Sales application, to
list the
databases of the Travel application together. How can she do this?
A.For each application, create a subfolder under the Data folder. Move each set of databases
to the
appropriate subfolder. Drag each folder onto the application navigator.
B.Click the folders icon within the application navigator. Select the option to Create a new
Working Set.
Name the Working Set "Sales" and select the databases that comprise the Sales application.
Perform a
similar procedure for the Travel application.
C.From Domino Designer select Create > Working Set. Specify "Sales" for the name. From
the
application properties of each database of the Sales application, select "Sales" from the
Working Set
drop-down list. Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
D.Edit the application properties of each database that comprises the Sales application. On
the Design
tab, specify "Sales" for the Working Set option. Repeat for each database of the Sales
application.
Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Neil has built an XPage and needs to have a field value to be calculated when the
user selects
something from a Combo box control. How can he do this task?
A.Add server-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script
Library to
execute the @SetField function.
B.Add client-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script
Library to
execute the @SetField function.
C.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Modify Field type and
define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
D.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Update Field type and
define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Kaitlyn has been asked to track which browser versions people are using to access the
Customers
XPage. She wants to add code that writes the browser version to the server log whenever a
user opens
the XPage.
What server-side code can Kaitlyn add to do this task?
A.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
var req = facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.getHeader("User-
Agent"));
B.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
var req =
facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.get(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
C.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
D.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader("User-Agent"));
Answer: A

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NO.4 Devin has been developing an application that includes an XPage. When he opened
the application in
Designer this morning, he noticed a small "x" icon by the XPages listing in the Applications
view. He had
closed several of the Eclipse views yesterday, and does not see any errors displayed in the
remaining
views. How can Devin locate the problems in the source code?
A.Right-click the "x" icon from the Applications view and select Go To Error. The Problems
view displays
with the cursor at the first error.
B.Display the Problems view by selecting Window > Show Eclipse Views > Problems. Right-
click a
displayed error and select Go To. The Source view opens to the line with the error.
C.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors.
Double-click
the name of the XPage and the Source view opens to the line with the error.
D.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors.
Double-click
the name of the XPage. The Source tab opens with the cursor at the first error line.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Ida has developed the needed functionality in the Customers XPage of her application.
The Web
design team has provided her with the internal.css stylesheet. After Ida imports the
stylesheet to her
application, how can she add the stylesheet to the XPage?
A.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. On the Style tab of the Properties view, click Add
style sheet to
page and select internal.css.
B.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. Right-click in an open area of the XPage and open
the Properties
window. Select internal.css for the Style Sheet option.
C.From the Applications view, select Resources > Style Sheets > internal.css. From the
Wiring tab of the
Properties view, click Add and select XPage > Customers.
D.From the Applications view, double-click to open the internal.css stylesheet. From the
Associations tab
of the Properties view, click Add association and select XPage > Customers.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Qiang needs to add a button to the Contact XPage. When clicked, this button should
delete the
currently-open document from the application. What is one way that Qiang can add this
button?
A.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the Operations tab, select Current document and Delete.
B.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. In the Options area of the properties, select Delete for the Action, and
select Domino
Document for the Target.
C.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a server-
side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
D.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a client-
side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The DiscussionTopics XPage includes a button to take users to the Feedback XPage.
Ted has created
the Feedback XPage. He now wants to add a Save and close button that saves the user's
input, and take
the user back to the DiscussionTopics XPage. What is one way he can do this task?
A.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the
onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();
B.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the
onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();context.getUrl("..");
C.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For
the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Document. Specify DiscussionTopics as the
argument.
D.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For
the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Data Sources. Specify DiscussionTopics as the
argument.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Brett wants to add a view to his XPage, configured so that it displays two rows for
each entry in the view.
What technique can he use to accomplish this task?
A.Add a View control to the XPage and configure the view's NumberOfRows property to '2'.
B.Add a View control to the XPage and change the NumberOfRows property on the All
Properties tab to
'2'.
C.Enable the Application property Use Java Views on Web and configure the view's
NumberOfRows
property to '2'.
D.Add a Repeat control to the XPage and place the appropriate fields within the Repeat
control in a two
row table.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Jack needs to display the release version of the Sales application on the top of each
XPage of the site.
He has created a computed field at the top of the 'home' XPage, and is using this field to set
the release
version. Jack also needs to create a computed field that is placed at the top of each linked
Xpage.
What code should he provide for Computed Field of each linked page to display the release
version?
A.environment("relVersion");
B.applicationScope("relVersion");
C.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += environment.get("relVersion");strVersion
D.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += applicationScope.get("relVersion");strVersion
Answer: D

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NO.10 Cade is building an XPage for the Sales application. What are the options from which
he can select
when defining a data source from the data palette?
A.@DbLookup and @DbColumn
B.Domino view and Domino document
C.Data connections and DB2 access views
D.Data connections, DB2 access views, and file resources
Answer: B

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NO.11 Alegria has saved her rental XPage, but there's an error in the XML source code. She
knows this
because the application navigator shows an icon of a red X next to the XPage. Where can
she find details
about the error?
A.Editor
B.Events view
C.Problems view
D.Application navigator
Answer: C

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NO.12 Farah has added the main.css stylesheet to her XPage. She wants to associate the
helpText class
from main.css with the lblHelp Label control on the page. How can Farah do this task?
A.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas and enter this line:
B.Right-click lblHelp from the XPage. On the HTML tab of the Properties window, enter
helpText for the
Class option.
C.Select the lblHelp control on the Xpage. From the Style tab of the Properties window, enter
helpText for
the Class option.
D.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas. Locate the line. Below this line, add:
Answer: C

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NO.13 Martha has a Submit button on her Timesheet XPage. When clicked, the button uses
the Save
Document simple action to save the data to the underlying document. What parameters does
Martha
have to provide to the Save Document simple action?
A.none
B.pageName, mergeConflicts
C.forceSave, createResponse
D.documentName, saveImmediate
Answer: A

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NO.14 Pablo has created an XPage to use for browsing and editing customer data. He would
like to add a
button which asks users if they are sure that they want to update the customer data. The
button saves the
changes if users indicate that they are sure.
How can Pablo create this button?
A.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, select
Save as the button type, and enable the Confirm option.
B.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, select
Save as the button type. A confirmation prompt is included by default.
C.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a server-side simple action.
Select Confirm
Action for the action.
D.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a client-side simple action.
Select Confirm
Action for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Odette is designing the index XPage that is used for navigation for her Domino
application. For what
purpose might Odette use the Outline view in Domino Designer in Eclipse while working with
the index
XPage?
A.To drag elements to rearrange sections and change the sequence of elements on the
XPage.
B.To drag controls from the controls palette onto a hierarchical representation of the XML
source code,
typically during the initial design of the XPage.
C.Aside from the expand and collapse icons, nothing in an Outline view is clickable.
Nonetheless, the
Outline view provides an extremely useful means to browse the XML elements of an XPage.
D.The Outline view provides a hierarchical representation of the XML source code in
XPages. The
developer can quickly update various settings from within the Outline view using right-click
menu options
for each element.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Viktor has been asked to begin modifying the corporate Domino Web sites to adhere
to XHTML
standards. He has enabled Enable enhanced HTML generation in the application properties.
When
testing a couple of the page elements in the Web browser and viewing the source, Viktor
notices that tags
like
and are still not correctly closed, that is.,
. What could be the problem?
A.This setting only applies to generated HTML, like passthrough HTML on a form.
B.The Web closes tags that have content. Tags that do not have content are ignored.
C.Each page element needs to be opened and saved to incorporate this new application
property setting.
D.The Web server generates valid XML, but there are exceptions. One of the exceptions is
passthrough
HTML.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Nadine has discovered that XPages dynamically generates names of UI elements.
She therefore
cannot know ahead of time what an element's name is when it is passed to the nWeb
browser. What
function can Nadine use in her server-side JavaScript to fetch the generated element ID at
runtime?
A.getClientId
B.getXpageElementId
C.toString(elementId())
D.toString(getElementId())
Answer: A

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NO.18 Lainey has recently upgraded to Notes Domino 8.5. She is now exploring the design of
her
applications to see what new features might be available. What is the purpose of the controls
palette that
Lainey sees?
A.The controls palette contains controls, such as Edit Box, File Upload, and Table that the
developer can
drag onto the XPage canvas.
B.The controls palette is another way to access the same items that are available from the
Create menu
for forms, views, XPages and other design elements.
C.The controls palette contains items like Edit Box, Button, and Label that the developer can
drag onto
XPages and forms. The controls palette is not available for views and pages.
D.The controls palette contains UI and other controls (such as Button, Link, and Image) that
allow the
developer to drag controls onto XPage or page elements. The controls palette is not available
for other
elements.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Abbas has imported the screen.css stylesheet into his application. He has discovered
that he needs to
edit the properties of some of the classes in the CSS. What steps can he follow to make the
needed
changes and save the CSS changes within the application?
A.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets.
Double-click
screen.css to use the built-in CSS editor.
B.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets.
Click
screen.css and in the Outline view select a class to use the built-in CSS editor.
C.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style
Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Design tab of the Properties view, double-click a
CSS class to
edit its properties.
D.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style
Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Web Properties tab of the Properties view, double-
click a CSS
class to edit its properties.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Eamonn has developed and supported several Domino Web applications over the
years. He has been
told that one of the benefits of XPages is that XPages are AJAX-enabled. What is a benefit
that Eamonn
might expect to see if he incorporates AJAX-enabled XPages in his applications?
A.Faster development using Shared Widgets resources
B.Faster response time due to partial page refreshes
C.Faster response time because JavaScript is now all server-side
D.Faster development because XML is now automatically converted to JSON
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: A2180-376
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, Solution Design)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 An application queue is triggered for trigger type of DEPTH. Following this, what
action should the job
or program that was started as a result of the trigger take before it ends, so that the queue
will be
triggered again the next time that trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) is reached?
A. It needs to use MQSET or an ALTER QLOCAL command to reset triggering (TRIGGER)
for the queue.
B. It needs to reset trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) for the queue through an MQSET or ALTER
QLOCAL
command.
C. It needs to reset trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) and triggering (TRIGGER) for the queue,
using MQSET or
an ALTER QLOCAL command.
D. No action needs to be taken. The queue manager will create the next trigger message
when the
current depth of the queue once again reaches trigger depth (TRIGDPTH).
Answer: A

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NO.2 There are multiple instances of a cluster queue. Which of the following is
recommended practice for the
default binding (DEFBIND) parameter?
A. Allow the local WebSphere MQ administrators to define default binding as they think best
for each
instance of the queue.
B. Require the WebSphere MQ administrators to set default binding to the same value for all
instances of
the queue in the cluster.
C. The solution designer should consult with the development team and local WebSphere
MQ
administrator to determine how best to configure default binding of each queue manager.
D. The best option is to accept the default setting for default binding on each queue manager,
as it should
have been given the optimal setting by its WebSphere MQ administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A solution designer has requested that several queues on a z/OS queue manager be
defined with index
type set to message ID, i.e., INDXTYPE(MSGID). Why would a designer use this setting?
A. It creates a permanent index of MSGIDs that are currently in use for this queue.
B. It allows MQGET commands to have significantly improved performance when getting
messages by
message ID.
C. It ensures that any new MSGIDs are unique as well as making the retrieval of messages
based on
message ID more efficient.
D. The queue manager will keep an index of MSGIDs that have already been used to make
sure that the
message ID is unique when a new message is put.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In designing a solution with availability in mind, the designer is considering the following
two
alternatives, one using a cluster queue and the other using a shared queue. In each
scenario, Queue
Managers QMA and QMB will both be capable of running Application A. In the first scenario,
Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on Windows accessing cluster queue QA. In the second scenario,
Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on z/OS accessing shared queue QA. Which of the following
describes the
availability scenarios in the situation where QMA fails?
A. For Windows, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to
process are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
B. For z/OS, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to process
are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
C. For Windows, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are made
available for
processing on QMB
D. For z/OS, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are unavailable for
processing
by QMB
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization has a widely distributed online environment, where applications are
connected via
WebSphere MQ messaging. A business requirement is brought forward that certain mission
critical
applications record audit trail data which is to be collected in a central location. No
information can be lost.
A central data warehouse must be loaded daily with this information as soon as possible after
end of
business. Which of the following proposed solutions is best in terms of the requirement,
reliability and
overall performance? The audit trail data is:
A. written to a file on the local file system and transmitted to the central audit trail server via
reliable file
transfer over WebSphere MQ.
B. sent as a persistent WebSphere MQ message and forwarded to the queue manager of the
central
server asynchronously.
C. inserted into a central database table via a remote access database client under control of
the local
WebSphere MQ transaction.
D. inserted into a local database table under two phase commit using WebSphere MQ as the
transaction
manager and a bulk update is performed at end of day.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Queue Managers QMA and QMB both have a cluster queue definition for Q1. A
sending application
resides on QMC, which is also part of the cluster. The messages being sent from QMC
contain data from
the same account that needs to be processed at the destination (Q1) in the same order that
the
messages were sent. Which one of the following is MOST LIKELY to enforce the sending
order on the
destination queue, assuming the message can be routed to the destination queue?
A. The sending application sends the messages for the account within the same unit of work
B. The sending application specifies the destination Queue Manager and Queue name on
the open for
Q1 and sends the messages for the account
C. The sending application opens Q1 with MQOO_BIND_ON_OPEN and sends the
messages for the
account
D. Q1 is defined with DEFBIND(OPEN) and the sending application opens Q1 and sends the
messages
for the account
Answer: C

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NO.7 A master data management solution has been implemented for the enterprise.
Updates with customer
and product data need to be distributed to several applications. What is the BEST approach
given that not
all applications might be interested in every customer type?
A. Use the publish/subscribe paradigm.
B. Receive updates on application-specific queues. Message properties and selectors should
be used for
filtering.
C. Browse a common queue for updates.
D. Use a request-reply pattern and query the MDM (Master Data Management) application.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A company has an MQI application on Windows that continuously browses a queue to
identify a
message before removing it for processing. The application has only one program reading
the queue. The
company is experiencing increased volumes, and there is a need to add additional instances
of the
browsing program. Which of the following options could help with splitting and managing the
workload
across the multiple browsing programs?
A. Use browse with lock
B. Use browse with message under cursor
C. Use browse with priority sequencing
D. Use MQ cooperative browsing optionsUse MQ? cooperative browsing options
E. Share an object handle across the programs
Answer: A D

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NO.9 A solution developer is writing a C language application on a UNIX platform. There is
a requirement
for the transactions to be processed within syncpoint control. What is the MINIMUM required
MQ
component on the application platform to achieve this functionality?
A. WebSphere MQ Client Installation
B. WebSphere MQ Extended Transactional Client Installation
C. WebSphere MQ Server Installation
D. WebSphere MQ Server Installation with the XA capabilities configured
Answer: A

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NO.10 A solution designer is evaluating distribution scenarios and wants to understand the
circumstances
where messages are not delivered as expected. Which of the following are reasons that a
message is
placed on the DLQ?
A. A trigger monitor is unable to start the triggered program
B. The destination queue is full when the program puts the message to the local queue
C. The queue manager is quiescing when the program puts the message to the queue
D. A sending message channel agent is unable to perform data conversion when required for
the
message
E. The program tries to put a message to an invalid local queue
Answer: A D

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NO.11 A new WebSphere MQ application with high volume requirements is being designed
to run on Solaris.
The solution designer is concerned about the performance of the application. The
WebSphere MQ for
Solaris V7 Performance Evaluation Report SupportPac provides all but one of the following
types of
information to the solution designer. Which is NOT discussed in this document?
A. Suggestions for tuning WebSphere MQ
B. Information that can be used to size the company new applicationInformation that can be
used to size
the company? new application
C. Evaluation of the relative cost of one WebSphere MQ API vs. another in different
scenarios
D. Evaluation of the relative cost of persistent messages vs. nonpersistent messages in
different
scenarios
Answer: C

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NO.12 An application is being designed which will send updates about customers to different
applications.
Given the sensitive nature of the data, the sending application needs to manage which
applications
receive the data. Which of the following is the best solution to ensure this?
A. Apply the publish-subscribe paradigm (one-to-many).
B. Each application should have its own queue on which it will listen for updates
C. All applications should listen on the same queue and after processing the message should
update its
header so the last application process can remove it from the queue
D. All receiving applications should listen on the same queue and the sending application
should send
separate copies of the message with attributes which allow the receiving applications to
search the queue
for their own copies.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A bus company is implementing a solution which will display in real-time the arrival
information of the
next bus on the bus stop sign. Each bus is sending information about its position at regular
intervals. What
is the best way of implementing this solution given that there is limited bandwidth for
communication? The
bus stop sign:
A. subscribes to messages published by the bus
B. queries a central system for bus position using SOAP over HTTP
C. replicates its own database every few minutes with a database stored on a central system
D. sends a message with a request every few minutes to a central system in order to query
bus position.
All replies are compressed.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which new feature in WebSphere MQ V7.0 needs to be taken into account when
WebSphere MQ
solutions are deployed into mixed z/OS and distributed environments?
A. Queue sharing groups are now available between z/OS and other platforms; however, at
least one
queue manager in the group must still be hosted on z/OS.
B. The use of WebSphere MQ Explorer for the administration of z/OS based queue
managers no longer
requires a license for the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) for a limited number of users.
C. WebSphere MQ Client applications from distributed environments can now directly
connect to z/OS
queue managers; the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) is no longer required.
D. A WebSphere MQ Client implementation on z/OS is now available, so that full WebSphere
MQ no
longer needs to be installed on all z/OS systems that want to participate in message queuing.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following should generally be avoided if an application is being designed
for optimal
efficiency?
A. Make messages nonpersistent if they do not need to be recoverable.
B. Code programs to open and close queues, or connect and disconnect from the queue
manager only
once, if the queues or connection will be used again.
C. Bundle the data to be transmitted into as few messages as possible (e.g., rather than
sending a
hundred 1MB messages, send one 100MB message).
D. Group a batch of messages within a unit of work where appropriate, so that they can be
committed all
at once (e.g., get and put messages under syncpoint and commit them in groups of 10, rather
than
committing them individually).
Answer: C

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NO.16 An application is required to retrieve rows from a relational database table and send
them across
WebSphere MQ to a remote queue manager, where a receiving application consumes them.
After a
successful MQPUT of a message, the corresponding row is to be deleted from the database.
It is intended
to run this application using the free WebSphere MQ Client. The delivery of each message is
to be
guaranteed. Which of the following is true about this implementation?
A. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; the Extended Transactional Client
is required,
since two phase commits are needed for this solution.
B. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; a local queue manager is required
to support
the guaranteed delivery of the messages.
C. This solution can be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client, provided that the
receiving
application can recognize and handle repeated delivery of the same message.
D. This solution cannot be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client; persistent
messaging is not
supported by the free WebSphere MQ Client.
Answer: C

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NO.17 An application creates documents in PDF format, which are subsequently transmitted
via WebSphere
MQ to a number of other servers in the network. Each server runs its own queue manager.
The
documents received by some servers are consistently corrupted, whereas on other servers
the
documents are intact. Other message traffic seems unaffected. What is the most likely
source of this
problem?
A. The environment variable MQCCSID specifies an incorrect value on the affected servers.
B. Incompatible message compression parameters are configured on the sending and
receiving channel
agents.
C. The network connection to the affected servers is unreliable and a message retry exit was
not specified
on the sending channel agent.
D. The affected servers run different CCSIDs from the servers creating the documents and
the message
descriptor specifies MQMD.Format as QSTR? causing message conversion.?QSTR?
causing message
conversion.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A solution designer is considering different API options for a new WebSphere MQ
application. Only IBM
supported WebSphere MQ programming options should be considered. Which one of the
following is not
supported by IBM?
A. XMS
B. JMS
C. Perl
D. WebSphere MQ classes for .NET
Answer: C

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NO.19 A suite of server applications is to be designed to support the graceful shutdown
capabilities of
WebSphere MQ implemented via the ail ifA suite of server applications is to be designed to
support the
graceful shutdown capabilities of WebSphere MQ implemented via the ?ail if
quiescing?feature. Which of
the following best describes the use of this feature?
A. Applications that have this feature activated can request an extra grace period of a
configurable length
that will allow them to complete critical processing before the queue manager will disconnect
them.
B. Applications using this feature will be informed of the queue manager quiescing via a
completion code
of MQCC_FAILED and a reason code of MQRC_Q_MGR_QUIESCING (or
MQRC_CONNECTION_QUIESCING) and will be disconnected automatically. Applications
are expected
to
periodically attempt reconnection.
C. Using FAIL_IF_QUIESCING options where valid with MQI calls, an application can finalize
MQ
processing, avoiding loss of data, before the queue manager is shut down.
D. When a queue manager is configured with the FAIL_IF_QUIESCING option and is being
shut down, it
will reject all MQI calls with a completion code of MQCC_FAILED and a reason code of
MQRC_Q_MGR_QUIESCING (or MQRC_CONNECTION_QUIESCING) in order to assure
fast and
reliable termination.
Answer: C

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NO.20 The topic object for the topic x/y is defined with WILDCARD=PASSTHRU. Which of
the following is the
most appropriate use of a wildcard for this topic?
A. Subscribe to topic x/y/#
B. Publish the information to topic x/y/#
C. Publish the information to topic x/y/+
D. It is not possible to use a wildcard with this topic
Answer: A

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