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Code d'Examen: 040-444
Nom d'Examen: ACSM (ACSM Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist)
Questions et réponses: 370 Q&As

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NO.1 .Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?
A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.
Answer: C

ACSM   040-444   certification 040-444   040-444

NO.2 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

certification ACSM   040-444 examen   040-444   040-444

NO.3 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

ACSM examen   040-444 examen   040-444   040-444

NO.4 .The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

ACSM   040-444   certification 040-444   certification 040-444   certification 040-444

NO.5 .Which of the following will increase stability?
A. Lowering the center of gravity.
B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.
Answer: A

ACSM examen   040-444   040-444 examen   certification 040-444   040-444   040-444 examen

NO.6 .Which of the following bones articulates proxi- mally with the sternal manubrium and distally with
the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?
A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.
Answer: C

ACSM   040-444   040-444   040-444   certification 040-444

NO.7 .Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during swing are
characteristic of
A. Weakness in the gluteusmedius and minimus.
B. Weakness in the quadricepsfemoris.
C. Weakness in theplantarflexors.
D. Weakness in thedorsiflexors.
Answer: D

certification ACSM   certification 040-444   040-444   040-444   040-444 examen

NO.8 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

ACSM   certification 040-444   040-444 examen

NO.9 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

certification ACSM   certification 040-444   040-444 examen   certification 040-444

NO.10 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

ACSM   040-444   040-444   certification 040-444

NO.11 .Who first described that a body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?
A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.
Answer: D

ACSM examen   040-444   040-444 examen   040-444   040-444

NO.12 .Angular motion occurs when
A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

ACSM   040-444   040-444 examen   certification 040-444

NO.13 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

ACSM examen   040-444 examen   040-444   certification 040-444

NO.14 .In second-class lever,
A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

ACSM examen   040-444   040-444   040-444   040-444 examen

NO.15 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

ACSM   040-444   040-444 examen   certification 040-444   040-444 examen

NO.16 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

ACSM examen   040-444   040-444 examen

NO.17 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

certification ACSM   certification 040-444   040-444   040-444 examen   certification 040-444

NO.18 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins.
Which of the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

certification ACSM   040-444 examen   040-444 examen   040-444

NO.19 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

ACSM   040-444   040-444   040-444   040-444

NO.20 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

ACSM examen   040-444   040-444

NO.21 .Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk herniation is
often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful stretching activities for
the low back?
A. Knee to chest.
B. Double-knee to chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

ACSM examen   040-444   040-444   certification 040-444

NO.22 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

ACSM   040-444   040-444

NO.23 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

ACSM   040-444   040-444   certification 040-444   040-444 examen

NO.24 .Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "power position" used for lifting with proper
body mechanics?
A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. Body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.
Answer: A

ACSM   040-444   040-444 examen   040-444 examen   certification 040-444

NO.25 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

ACSM   040-444   040-444   040-444 examen   040-444 examen   certification 040-444

NO.26 .The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?
A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. Gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

ACSM   040-444   040-444   040-444 examen   040-444

NO.27 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

ACSM   040-444 examen   040-444   040-444

NO.28 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

ACSM examen   040-444   certification 040-444

NO.29 .rteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

ACSM   certification 040-444   040-444   040-444   certification 040-444

NO.30 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to con-tinue
to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside
force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

ACSM examen   040-444   certification 040-444   040-444   040-444

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Code d'Examen: SD0-401
Nom d'Examen: SDI (Service Desk Foundation Qualification)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401 examen   SD0-401

NO.2 Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401 examen   SD0-401

NO.3 What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.
B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-401 examen   SD0-401   SD0-401 examen

NO.4 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B

SDI   certification SD0-401   certification SD0-401   certification SD0-401

NO.5 What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401 examen

NO.6 What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-401 examen   SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.7 When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
Answer: C

SDI   certification SD0-401   certification SD0-401

NO.8 Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
Answer: A

SDI examen   certification SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.9 What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D

certification SDI   SD0-401 examen   certification SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.10 Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401 examen

NO.11 Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.
B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.12 What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401 examen   certification SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.13 What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
Answer: B

SDI examen   certification SD0-401   certification SD0-401   SD0-401 examen   SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.14 What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C

SDI examen   SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.15 What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401

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Code d'Examen: BCP-223
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in a Microsoft Exchange Environment)
Questions et réponses: 109 Q&As

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NO.1 A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is
having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user
Answer: E

BlackBerry examen   BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223 examen

NO.2 Which of the following components is responsible for performing wireless calendar
synchronization? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry MailStore Service
D. BlackBerry Controller Service
E. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-223   certification BCP-223   certification BCP-223   BCP-223

NO.3 By default how long will the enterprise activation password last before it expires within the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose one.)
A. 1 hour
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 7 days
Answer: D

BlackBerry examen   BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223

NO.4 Which BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on remote computers; separate from
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Controller Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
F. BlackBerry Alert Service
Answer: B,C,E

BlackBerry examen   BCP-223   certification BCP-223   certification BCP-223   BCP-223

NO.5 Which are the minimum supported BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions which can be upgraded to
BlackBerry Enterprise Server version 5.0? (Choose one.)
A. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
B. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
C. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
D. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
E. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP4 or later
F. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP6 or later
Answer: E

BlackBerry   BCP-223   BCP-223 examen   certification BCP-223

NO.6 A system administrator has applied Service Pack 1 to the Microsoft Office Communicator Server 2007.
The system administrator decides to restart the BlackBerry Collaboration Service. What will be the effect
on the BlackBerry device users that are currently logged in to the Microsoft Office Communicator client?
(Choose one.)
A. The users will not notice any difference
B. The connection will appear slow while the service restarts
C. The contacts will temporarily be lost in the Microsoft Office Communicator client
D. The current session will be dropped and the users will have to log in again
E. The users will not be able to send messages
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-223   BCP-223

NO.7 How can a support representative assign a custom enterprise activation password to a BlackBerry
device user? (Choose one.)
A. Generate an activation email through the BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Assign a custom password through the IT policy assigned to the user
C. Send a PIN message to the user containing the custom password
D. Specify an activation password through the BlackBerry Administration Service
E. Assign the password to the PIN through the Enterprise Service Policy
Answer: D

certification BlackBerry   certification BCP-223   certification BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223 examen

NO.8 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.9 Which two methods can be used to directly access the Windows Event Log to review them for errors?
(Choose two.)
A. Internet Explorer
B. Windows Control Panel
C. Windows Run command
D. BlackBerry Configuration Tool
E. BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: B,C

BlackBerry   certification BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223 examen   certification BCP-223

NO.10 Which one of the following is the correct registry path to the BlackBerry Configuration Database
information? (Choose one.)
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise Server\
C. HKEY_LOCAL_USER\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
D. This information is not stored in the registry
Answer: A

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NO.11 IT policies are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps what level of the IT policy takes priority? (Choose one.)
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.12 A system administrator attempts to start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services but receives the
following error message: System Error 1069 has occurred. What could be the possible cause for this error?
(Choose one.)
A. The system administrator is logged into the computer with the wrong account
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are starting with the local system account
C. The system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator roleThe
system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator?role
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are trying to login with the incorrect login information
E. The Microsoft SQL and Microsoft Exchange services are not started on the remote computer
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which BlackBerry Router Service configuration must be done before performing a wireless enterprise
activation over Wi-Fi ? (Choose one.)
A. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is not installed remotely
B. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to Microsoft SQL Server
C. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to the mailbox
D. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is configured to listen on port 8080
E. Verify the setting Permit wireless activation in your WLAN environment is enabled
Answer: E

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NO.14 What icon is displayed in the menus on the BlackBerry device to indicate that an option has been
disabled by an IT policy? (Choose one.)
A. Red Padlock
B. Red ?Red ?
C. Black ?Black ?
D. Black Padlock
Answer: A

BlackBerry   BCP-223   BCP-223   certification BCP-223

NO.15 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.16 Which of the following ule Types?define a change in the data for an item being monitored by the
BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (ChooseWhich of the following ?ule Types?define a change in the data
for an item being monitored by the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose three.)
A. Value Based Rule
B. Time Based Rule
C. Trigger Based Rule
D. Action Based Rule
E. Duration Based Rule
Answer: A,B,E

BlackBerry   BCP-223   BCP-223   certification BCP-223

NO.17 What happens to the activation email message after the BlackBerry Messaging Agent has retrieved it
from the mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. Email message is marked as read
B. Email message is moved to the Sent folder
C. Email message remains in the Inbox unread
D. Email message is removed from the Inbox
E. Email message is filed to the BlackBerry folder in the mailbox
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223 examen

NO.18 A system administrator runs daily reports on BlackBerry device users with the BlackBerry Monitoring
Service. The system administrator notices that the pending count for 2 out of 30 users is increasing. How
can the system administrator verify the two users are able to establish a data connection for email
message flow? (Choose two.)
A. Produce another daily report to verify that pending count will decrease
B. Send a PIN message to the two affected users
C. Check the application log for any errors for the two users
D. Remove and re-add the two users and start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services
E. Verify the port 3101 is open on the firewall
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Which of the following are two pieces of information required when configuring a remote component
for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-223   certification BCP-223   BCP-223   BCP-223 examen

NO.20 While provisioning a new BlackBerry device for a user, the following error is displayed: An error has
occurred. Please contact your System Administrator. When reviewing the logs the following is located:
User is not authorized for BlackBerry services What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The user account needs to be assigned to a user group
B. The PIN needs to be added to the Approved PIN list in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. A security wipe must be performed on the BlackBerry device prior to starting the enterprise activation
process
D. Enterprise Server Policy needs to be enabled on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. An IT policy must be assigned to the newly created user account
Answer: B

BlackBerry   BCP-223   BCP-223   certification BCP-223

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Code d'Examen: BCP-710
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Selling the Blackberry Solution for Tech. Sales Professional)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two BlackBerry Enterprise Server components CANNOT be installed on a separate computer?
(Choose two.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry Router Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Attachment Service
F. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 IT polices are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps, what level of IT policies take priority? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

BlackBerry examen   certification BCP-710   certification BCP-710   BCP-710 examen   BCP-710

NO.3 What is the maximum number of total BlackBerry smartphone users (CAL's) that the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server can handle before it is recommended that a second BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance be added to the BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 2500
Answer: D

BlackBerry   certification BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.4 Which new feature of BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 can be utilized to minimize or eliminate
upgrade-related down-time? (Choose one.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Transporter
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Disposition Service
E. High availability
F. Application Pool
Answer: E

certification BlackBerry   BCP-710   certification BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.5 Which three of the following roles are available by default in BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 role
based administration? (Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Junior Help Desk
C. Senior Help Desk
D. Database Administrator
E. Senior Enterprise Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

BlackBerry   BCP-710   BCP-710   BCP-710 examen

NO.6 Which two of the following are valid Wi-Fi security protocols? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. WPA
B. PSK
C. Triple DES
D. AES
E. PGP
Answer: A,B

BlackBerry   BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.7 Which two of the following are basic functions of the BlackBerry Mobile Data Service? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Allows organizations to deliver corporate data wirelessly
B. Enables the system administrator to manage BlackBerry smartphone policies
C. Incorporates the push delivery model and advanced security features for application
deployment
D. Allows BlackBerry smartphone users to manage applications installed on their BlackBerry smartphone
through the BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A,C

BlackBerry examen   BCP-710   certification BCP-710   BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.8 Web-based access to BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 is a function of which component? (Choose
one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
F. BlackBerry Mobile Data Service
Answer: D

BlackBerry   BCP-710   BCP-710 examen   BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.9 Which of the following statements describe the SRP credentials used by the active and standby
instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a high availability environment? (Choose one.)
Tosee the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use a different SRP ID and
authentication key.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID and
authentication key.
C. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID but
different authentication keys.
D. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use different SRP IDs but the
same authentication key.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is automatically assigned an SRP ID or
authentication key.
Answer: B

BlackBerry   certification BCP-710   certification BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.10 Which three email platforms support BlackBerry Collaboration Service? (Choose three.)
To see the Acronym list click the ?Exhibit? button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Client for use with Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 and Microsoft
Office Communications Server 2007
B. BlackBerry Client for IBM Lotus Sametime
C. BlackBerry Client for Novell GroupWise Messenger
D. BlackBerry Client for Microsoft Sharepoint
Answer: A,B,C

BlackBerry   BCP-710 examen   certification BCP-710   certification BCP-710

NO.11 Which three of the following features are new Calendar application enhancements introduced with
BlackBerry Device Software 5.0 and BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0? (Choose three.) Tosee the
Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Free/Busy Availability Lookup
B. Forward Calendar Entries
C. Calendar Attachment Support
D. Synchronization of public and private contacts
E. Create a new calendar entry from the BlackBerry device
Answer: B,C,D

BlackBerry   BCP-710   BCP-710

NO.12 The security team is requesting the ability to control what types of BlackBerry smartphones can activate
on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. Using the Enterprise Service Policy which three restrictions can be
implemented to control which BlackBerry smartphones can use the BlackBerry Enterprise Server?
(Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Model Name
B. ESN Range
C. Manufacturer's Name
D. PIN Range
E. Wi-Fi Equipped
Answer: A,C,D

certification BlackBerry   BCP-710 examen   BCP-710

NO.13 Why would someone login to the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. To add their account to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. To synchronize their S/MIME certificate
C. To set an enterprise activation password
D. To modify the BlackBerry Attachment Server settings
E. To modify their wireless PIM sync settings
Answer: C

BlackBerry   BCP-710   BCP-710   BCP-710   BCP-710 examen

NO.14 DRAG DROP
What is the correct message flow for an email message going from the mailbox to the BlackBerry
smartphone?Place the steps in the correct order by dragging them from the left to the right.
Answer:

NO.15 DRAG DROP
Which five components in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are part of the attachment process when
requested from an email message on the BlackBerry smartphone?
Answer:

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-872
Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part II)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true?
A. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
B. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
C. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
D. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
Answer: A,D

MYSQL examen   1Z0-872   1Z0-872 examen   1Z0-872

NO.2 Which of the following is a valid method to restrict the amount of records returned from SHOW
WARNINGS.?
A. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
B. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
C. limit can not be used with show warnings
Answer: A,B

MYSQL examen   certification 1Z0-872   certification 1Z0-872

NO.3 When executing multi-row operations, what should be the first thing you look for to see if anything
unexpected happened?
A. Warning/Error Count.
B. Warning/Error Codes.
C. Warning/Error messages.
Answer: A

MYSQL   1Z0-872 examen   1Z0-872 examen   1Z0-872

NO.4 Which of the following describe situations when MySQL generates warnings?
A. When it is not able to completely fulfill a request.
B. When a system-level error occurs.
C. When an action has possible unintended side-effects.
Answer: A,C

MYSQL   1Z0-872   1Z0-872 examen   certification 1Z0-872   1Z0-872 examen

NO.5 Which of the following are valid optimization techniques?
A. Rewrite queries to use indexes
B. Use EXPLAIN
C. Use ORDER BY
Answer: A,B

MYSQL   1Z0-872   1Z0-872

NO.6 Consider the following statement: show COUNT (*) warnings what would be the result of executing this
statement?
A. An error would be returned, as this is not valid syntax.
B. The number of current warnings would be returned.
C. The total number of warnings server-wide would be returned
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes how a column prefix index works and why its an advantage?
A. A Column prefix allows for a shorter index, making it read less from disk,
B. A Column prefix allows for a shorter index name, making less code to be written.
C. A Column prefix is another name for a left-most prefix, which is usefully with multi-column indexes.
Answer: A

MYSQL   certification 1Z0-872   1Z0-872   certification 1Z0-872

NO.8 For maximum efficiency in join operations of one column from each of two tables, which of the following
statements regarding indexes are true?
A. In a LEFT JOIN such as table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table1 .a = table2.b, the column b in table2
should always be indexed
B. A LEFT JOIN would not benefit from either of the participating columns being indexed
C. In an INNER JOIN, either, but not both, columns participating in the join should be indexed
D. In an INNER JOIN, both columns participating in the join should be indexed
E. An INNER JOIN would not benefit from either of the participating columns being indexed F. In a LEFT
JOIN such as table 1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table 1 .a = table2.b, the column a in table 1should always be
indexed
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which of the following best describes the major trade-offs for MylSAM fixed-length types vs.
variable-length types, respectively?
A. Fixed-length are slower, but require less disk space, as variable-length are faster, but require more disk
space.
B. Fixed-length are faster and require less disk space, as variable-length are slower and require more
disk space.
C. Fixed-length are faster, but require more disk space, as variable-length are slower, but require less disk
space.
D. Fixed-length are slower and require more disk space, as variable-length are faster and require less
disk space.
Answer: C

MYSQL examen   1Z0-872   1Z0-872 examen

NO.10 Using column prefix indexing helps reduce
A. The amount of time to write a query
B. The number of results returned
C. The amount of disk I/O needed
D. The amount of disk space needed
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: C_BOCR_08
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008)
Questions et réponses: 292 Q&As

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NO.1 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

SAP   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08 examen

NO.2 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A. Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B. Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer: A

SAP   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08 examen

NO.3 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

certification SAP   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08   C_BOCR_08 examen

NO.4 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition.?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage =
"Enabled"
Answer: A

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NO.5 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A. You do not have access to the database.
B. The Page Header section is suppressed.
C. A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D. You have not saved the report with data.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D

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NO.14 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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NO.18 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.19 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D

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Code d'Examen: C_TBIT44_71
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.1))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?
A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.
B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration process should be
canceled.
How can this be achieved?
A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert to inform
the administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step?
A. Incrementing a counter variable.
B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 You can create multiple configurations for one Integration Process without changing the appropriate
process definition.
Which of these parameters allows you to achieve this behavior?
A. Process Signature
B. Container Definition
C. Correlation
D. Configurable Parameters in Conditions
Answer: D

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NO.6 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.7 If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management and the
integration process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?
A. Within the SLD
B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor
Answer: B

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NO.8 Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. to
perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set).
What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the
sender IDoc adapter.
Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML messages. These
XML messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK.
What is the purpose of the RFC adapter parameter "Program ID"?
A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.
B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping' functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.12 A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in these processes
do not usually provide information about their internal system landscape.
Which configuration objects are relevant for B2B configuration?
A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode?
A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.
B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific queue.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in the normal way,
you can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions?
A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM52_64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.4 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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NO.12 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.15 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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